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2-5-10. CONTROLLER-IN-CHARGE (CIC) TRAINING

2-5-10. CONTROLLER-IN-CHARGE (CIC) TRAINING

a. Prior to being designated as CIC, specialists must have been facility/area rated/certified for 6 months. The specialist must also have completed an agency approved and established CIC training course for the assigned option (i.e., En Route CIC, Course 55072, National Flight Service CIC, Course 55025, or Terminal CIC, Course 55073). The Director of Flight Services Operations may issue a facility waiver for the 6 months criteria where a more immediate assignment is indicated. Upon receipt of a waiver from the Director of Flight Services Operations the facility manager can then issue individual waivers to the 6 months requirement on a case-by-case basis. Waivers to facilities will be for 1 year with renewals based on the result of a yearly evaluation by the region.

a. Prior to being designated as CIC, specialists must have been facility/area rated/certified for 6 months, except as provided in paragraph 2-6-3c. The specialist must also have completed an agency-approved and established CIC training course for the assigned option (that is, En Route CIC, Course 55072; National Flight Service CIC, Course 55025; or Terminal CIC, Course 55073). The Director of Flight Services Operations may issue a facility waiver for the 6 months criteria where a more immediate assignment is indicated. Upon receipt of a waiver from the Director of Flight Services Operations, the facility manager can then issue individual waivers to the 6 months requirement on a case-by-case basis. Waivers to facilities will be for 1 year with renewals based on the result of a yearly evaluation by the region.

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NOTE-
In facilities that use CICs to provide midwatch coverage, all facility/area rated/certified specialists that provide such coverage must complete an agency approved and established CIC training course for the assigned option as described above, within 30 days of final certification/rating.

b. Specialists that have completed the CIC course, who have performed CIC duties, and who subsequently transfer to another facility must be required to complete those portions of the course that are specific to the new facility before assuming CIC duties. They must not be required to fulfill the 6 months experience requirement at the new facility.

b. Specialists that have completed the CIC course, who have performed CIC duties, and who subsequently transfer to another facility must be required to complete those portions of the course that are specific to the new facility before assuming CIC duties, except as provided in paragraph 2-6-3. They must not be required to fulfill the 6 months experience requirement at the new facility.

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2-6-3. CONTROLLER-IN-CHARGE (CIC) DESIGNATION

2-6-3. CONTROLLER-IN-CHARGE (CIC) DESIGNATION

a through b

No Change

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c. In facilities that use CICs to provide midwatch coverage, specialists that provide such coverage must be designated as a CIC only for the purpose of providing midwatch coverage upon facility/area certification and completion of the local CIC training course. Air traffic managers must ensure the local CIC training course is completed within 30 days of facility/area certification/rating.

NOTE

No Change

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2-6-4. CONTROLLER-IN-CHARGE (CIC) SELECTION PROCESS

2-6-4. CONTROLLER-IN-CHARGE (CIC) SELECTION PROCESS

a through e

No Change

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NOTE-
These provisions do not apply to midwatch CIC coverage.

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2-6-7. BASIC WATCH SCHEDULE

2-6-7. BASIC WATCH SCHEDULE

a through b3

No Change

4. Have at least an 8-hour break from the time work ends to the start of any subsequent shift.

4. Have at least an 8-hour break from the time work ends to the start of any shift, except as follows:

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(a) Employees are required to have a minimum of 9 consecutive hours off duty preceding the start of a day shift. For purposes of this paragraph only, a day shift is generally defined as a shift where the majority of hours fall between 7:00 a.m. and 4:00 p.m.

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(b) This requirement applies to all shift changes, swaps, and overtime to include scheduled, call-in, and holdover assignments.

5. Have an off-duty period of at least 12 hours following a midnight shift. (A midnight shift is defined as a shift in which the majority of hours are worked between 10 p.m. and 8 a.m.)

5. Have an off-duty period of at least 12 hours following a midnight shift. (A midnight shift is defined as a shift in which the majority of hours are worked between 10:30 p.m. and 6:30 a.m.)

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2-6-12. CONSOLIDATING TOWER/ TRACON FUNCTIONS

2-6-12. CONSOLIDATING TOWER/ TRACON FUNCTIONS

a. At facilities where both tower and radar/nonradar approach control services are provided, the air traffic manager must ensure, to the maximum extent possible, that these functions are not consolidated unless unforeseen circumstances or emergency situations arise which would preclude compliance with this paragraph.

a. At facilities where both tower and radar/nonradar approach control services are provided, the air traffic manager must ensure, to the maximum extent possible, that these functions are not consolidated during non-midwatch operations unless unforeseen circumstances or emergency situations arise which would preclude compliance with this paragraph.

b. During midwatch operations (between 2230 and 0630 local time), when traffic is very light, all functions may be consolidated for short meal or physiological breaks.

b. During midwatch operations (where the majority of hours fall between 10:30 p.m. and 6:30 a.m.) when traffic permits, all functions may be consolidated for meals or breaks.

c. At facilities with a tower only operation and staffing of only one Certified Professional Controller (CPC), coordination must be accomplished with the facility providing radar/nonradar approach control services to the airport before the CPC can leave the operational quarters for physiological breaks. This should only be done during periods of light to zero traffic.

c. Air traffic managers must ensure that no less than two fully-certified and current operational personnel are assigned to midnight shift, unless no such personnel are available for assignment. In the event circumstances result in an operation with staffing of only one fully-certified and current operational person, coordination must be accomplished with an adjacent facility before the operational person can leave the operational quarters for physiological breaks. This should be accomplished during periods of light to zero traffic.

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2-6-13. SINGLE PERSON TRACON/ TOWER OPERATIONS

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In the event circumstances result in shift staffing of only one fully-certified and operationally-current person, coordination must be accomplished as follows:

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a. Single-person TRACON operations.

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1. This type of operation must include some form of challenge or response to aircraft hand-offs between two facilities/functions.

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2. Automated coordination cannot be silent hand-offs that do not include human interaction. It must be either manually coordinated (verbally via landline) or positively acknowledged via automation (acceptance of the handoff by keystroke entry).

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3. In the event verbal coordination on inbound flights is required, it should be completed before communications transfer. If there is no response from the single-staffed facility controller, immediate action must be taken to determine the status of the unresponsive controller and begin appropriate notifications.

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4. In all cases where a facility midnight shift is staffed with a single person, the following additional communication checks must take place:

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(a) The approach control facility must initiate a communications check on the hour and at 30 minutes past the hour with the en route facility providing service to the TRACON, unless procedures are established locally with another FAA facility to accomplish this task.

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(b) The servicing en route facility or FAA facility must initiate a communications check with the TRACON at 15 and 45 minutes past the hour to ensure communications can be verified with the single-staffed operation, unless procedures are established locally with another FAA facility to accomplish this task.

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b. Single-person tower operations.

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1. This type of operation must include some form of challenge or response to aircraft hand-offs between two facilities/functions.

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2. This type of operation must include verbal coordination on all ATIS changes. For example, when there is a change to the ATIS, a call to the TRACON or en route facility providing approach control services advising them of the change must be on a recorded line.

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3. Verbal coordination over established communication lines to the departure controller confirming that they are prepared to accept the flight should be completed before issuing takeoff clearance when the receiving facility is a single-staffed TRACON. If there is no response from the single-staffed facility controller, immediate action must be taken to determine the status of the unresponsive controller and begin appropriate notifications.

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4. In all cases where a facility midnight shift is staffed with a single person, the following additional communication checks must take place:

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(a) The tower must initiate a communications check with the facility providing approach control services on the hour and at 30 minutes past the hour, unless procedures are established locally with another FAA facility to accomplish this task.

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(b) The servicing approach control facility or FAA facility must initiate a communications check with the tower at 15 and 45 minutes past the hour to ensure communications can be verified with the single-staffed operation, unless procedures are established locally with another FAA facility to accomplish this task.

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NOTE-
The requirement for challenge/communications checks can be accomplished through the exchange of traffic or information, either verbally or through automation.

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c. Up/Down facilities during midnight shifts.

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1. When operations permit, it is expected that functions will be consolidated to facilitate breaks.

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2. If the facility is not working with both functions in the cab and has a single-staffed operation in either operating quarters, the single-staffed operation practices apply.

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3. Single-staffed challenge checks can be applied between tower/TRACON in up/down facilities rather than through the overlying en route facility.

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2-7-7. COOPERATION WITH LAW ENFORCEMENT AGENCIES

2-7-7. COOPERATION WITH LAW ENFORCEMENT AGENCIES

a. FAA personnel must cooperate in every reasonable way with law enforcement agencies. Theft of aircraft and use of aircraft for illegal purposes have complicated the task of the Federal law enforcement agencies. The FBI, the U.S. Customs Service, and the INS have requested the FAA to assist them by furnishing information of suspicious activities regarding use of aircraft.

a. FAA personnel must cooperate in every reasonable way with law enforcement agencies. Theft of aircraft and use of aircraft for illegal purposes have complicated the task of the Federal law enforcement agencies. The FBI and Department of Homeland Security (DHS) have requested the FAA to assist them by furnishing information of suspicious activities regarding use of aircraft.

b. Any inquires from airport managers, aircraft owners or others to initiate an alert message must be directed to the El Paso Intelligence Center (EPIC). EPIC is interfaced with the National Crime Information Center (NCIC), which gives them access to any stolen aircraft report entered by law enforcement agencies. FAA facilities must not volunteer to relay this information to EPIC. Assistance must be limited to providing EPIC phone number(s) COMM (915) 564-2220, or advising the inquiring party to go through normal law enforcement channels.

b. Any inquires from airport managers, aircraft owners, or others to initiate an alert message must be directed to the El Paso Intelligence Center(EPIC). EPIC is interfaced with the National Crime Information Center (NCIC), which gives them access to any stolen aircraft report entered by law enforcement agencies. FAA facilities must not volunteer to relay this information to EPIC. Assistance must be limited to providing the EPIC phone number, (915) 564-2220, or advising the inquiring party to go through normal law enforcement channels.

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c. Reports of suspected human trafficking must be reported on the Domestic Events Network (DEN). If the ATC facility is not actively monitoring the DEN or does not have a dedicated line to the DEN, they must immediately report the above referenced activity on the DEN via (202) 493-4170.

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NOTE-
“Blue Lightning" is a code word used by the DEN and law enforcement agencies to refer to human trafficking activities.

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3-4-4. HANDLING RECORDER TAPES, DATs, or DALR STORAGE

3-4-4. HANDLING RECORDER TAPES, DATs, or DALR STORAGE

title through b6

No Change

7. Tarmac Delay: When a facility is notified that an aircraft has exceeded the “Three/Four-Hour Tarmac Rule," retain voice recordings relevant to the event for 1 year.

7. Tarmac Delay: When a facility is notified that an aircraft has or may have exceeded the “Three/Four-Hour Tarmac Rule," retain voice recordings relevant to the event for 1 year.

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11-3-2. DATA RETENTION

11-3-2. DATA RETENTION

title through b4

No Change

5. Tarmac Delay: When a facility is notified that an aircraft has exceeded the “Three/Four-Hour Tarmac Rule," retain data relevant to the event for 1 year.

5. Tarmac Delay: When a facility is notified that an aircraft has or may have exceeded the “Three/Four-Hour Tarmac Rule," retain data relevant to the event for 1 year.

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17-5-14. TARMAC DELAY OPERATIONS

17-5-14. TARMAC DELAY OPERATIONS

a. Facility Procedures. The ATCSCC, en route facilities, and affected terminal facilities must develop procedures for handling of requests related to tarmac delays. ATMs must ensure that those procedures are in a facility directive and briefed annually. Issues to consider when developing local procedures should include:

a. Facility Procedures. The ATCSCC, en route facilities, and affected terminal facilities must develop procedures for handling requests related to tarmac delays for arriving or departing aircraft. ATMs must ensure that those procedures are in a facility directive and briefed annually. Issues to consider when developing local procedures should include:

a1 through b1(a)

No Change

(b) Tower-only and tower/TRACON facilities must verbally notify the overlying facility when informed of a tarmac delay request. Request to taxi for deplanement related to “Three/Four- Hour Tarmac Rule" must be documented on FAA Form 7230-4 as a QAR, indicating the time the request was made. Additionally, at those facilities equipped with NTML, utilize the program to forward the information to the TRACON/ARTCC/ATCSCC.

(b) Tower-only and tower/TRACON facilities must verbally notify the overlying facility and document the incident with pertinent information on FAA Form 7230-4 in CEDAR as a QAR “Q"entry when:

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(1) The facility is informed of a tarmac delay request or taxi for deplanement related to the “Three/Four-Hour Tarmac Rule."

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(2) The facility becomes aware of an aircraft that has or may have exceeded the “Three/Four–Hour Tarmac Rule."

(c) TRACONs must verbally notify the overlying ARTCC TMU when an airport within their geographic jurisdiction has received a tarmac delay request. “Three/Four-Hour Tarmac Rule" must be documented on FAA Form 7210-4 as a QAR, indicating the time the request was made. At facilities equipped with NTML, utilize the program to forward the information to the ARTCC/ATCSCC.

(c) TRACONs must verbally notify the overlying ARTCC TMU and document the incident with pertinent information on FAA Form 7230-4 in CEDAR as a QAR “Q"entry when:

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(1) An airport within their geographic jurisdiction has received a tarmac delay request or taxi for deplanement related to the “Three/Four-Hour Tarmac Rule."

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(2) The facility becomes aware of an aircraft that has or may have exceeded the “Three/Four-Hour Tarmac Rule."

(d) ARTCCs must verbally notify the ATCSCC when an airport within their geographic jurisdiction has received a tarmac delay request. “Three/Four-Hour Tarmac Rule" must be documented on FAA Form 7230-4 as a QAR, indicating the time the request was made. At facilities equipped with NTML, utilize the program to forward the information to the ATCSCC.

(d) ARTCCs must verbally notify the ATCSCC and document the incident with pertinent information on FAA Form 7230-4 in CEDAR as a QAR “Q"entry when:

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(1) An airport within their geographic jurisdiction has received a tarmac delay request or taxi for deplanement related to the “Three/Four-Hour Tarmac Rule."

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(2) The facility becomes aware of an aircraft that has or may have exceeded the “Three/Four-Hour Tarmac Rule."

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(e) Facilities equipped with NTML should utilize the program to forward the information to the TRACON/ARTCC/ATCSCC.

NOTE-
The QAR should be comprehensive and include; but it not limited to ASDE data, flight progress strips, voice replay, etc.

NOTE-
The QAR should be comprehensive and include pertinent information such as date, time, location of the occurrence, the identification of the aircraft involved, the time a tarmac delay taxi request was made, and other known information concerning movement of the aircraft. Data used during the review may include ASDE data, flight progress strips, voice replay, etc.

2. When an ARTCC is notified that an aircraft has exceeded the “Three/Four-Hour Tarmac Rule," they must notify the ROC as soon as possible; the ROC must then notify the WOC as soon as possible. Notification should include the date, time and location of the occurrence, as well as the identification of the aircraft involved.

2. When an ARTCC is notified that an aircraft has or may have exceeded the “Three/Four-Hour Tarmac Rule," they must notify the ROC as soon as possible; the ROC must then notify the WOC as soon as possible. Notification should include the date, time and location of the occurrence, as well as the identification of the aircraft involved.

3. When a facility is notified that an aircraft has exceeded the “Three/Four-Hour Tarmac Rule," all available records pertinent to that event will be retained in accordance with 8020.16, paragraph 119g.

3. When a facility is notified that an aircraft has or may have exceeded the “Three/Four-Hour Tarmac Rule," all available records pertinent to that event will be retained in accordance with FAA Order JO 8020.16.

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10-3-13. APPROACHES TO PARALLEL RUNWAYS

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a. Where vectors are provided to intercept parallel final approach courses, facilities must review and, where necessary, address speed requirements to reduce the potential for overshoot situations.

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b. When determining speed requirements, consider, at a minimum, the following:

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1. Airspace constraints.

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2. Field elevation.

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3. Fleet mix.

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4. Airport layout.

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5. Traffic flow(s).

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6. Local weather.

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c. When speed requirements are implemented, those requirements must be contained in a facility directive.

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10-3-14. GO-AROUND/MISSED APPROACH

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a. Tower facility directives must address procedures for go-arounds and/or missed approaches. The procedures must require controllers to issue control instructions as necessary to establish separation. During the development or review of these procedures, facilities must give consideration, at a minimum, to the following factors:

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1. Operational position configuration.

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2. Communication and/or control transfer.

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3. Runway configuration.

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4. Evaluation of existing waivers (for example, reduced separation on final).

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5. Wake turbulence.

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6. Weather conditions.

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7. Type of approach (instrument or visual).

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REFERENCE-
P/CG Term - Go-around
P/CG Term - Low Approach
P/CG Term - Missed Approach
FAAO JO 7110.65, Para 3-8-1, Sequence/Spacing Application
FAAO JO 7110.65, Para 3-8-2, Touch-and-Go or Stop-and-Go or Low Approach
FAAO JO 7110.65, Para 4-8-11, Practice Approaches
FAAO JO 7110.65, Para 4-8-12, Low Approach and Touch-and-Go
FAAO JO 7110.65, Para 5-5-4, Minima
FAAO JO 7110.65, Para 5-6-3, Vectors Below Minimum Altitude
FAAO JO 7110.65, Para 5-8-4, Departure and Arrival
FAAO JO 7110.65, Para 5-8-5, Departures and Arrivals on Parallel or Nonintersecting Diverging Runways
FAAO JO 7110.65, Para 7-2-1, Visual Separation
FAAO 7110.98A, Para 8d2
FAAO JO 7110.308, Para 6b1(d), Para 6c2(i)

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NOTE-
Facilities with approved arrival/departure window procedures are considered to be in compliance with the provisions of this paragraph.

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b. The procedures must be evaluated on an annual basis to determine their effectiveness.

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10-4-6. SIMULTANEOUS APPROACHES (DEPENDENT/INDEPENDENT)

10-4-6. SIMULTANEOUS INDEPENDENT APPROACHES

The requirements for conducting simultaneous straight­in approaches to parallel runways are:

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a. Dependent approaches may be conducted when a minimum distance of 2,500 feet, but no more than 9,000 feet, exists between centerlines.

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REFERENCE-
FAAO JO 7110.65, Para 5­9­6, Simultaneous Dependent Approaches, FIG 5­9­7
FAAO JO 7110.65, Para 5­9­6, Simultaneous Dependent Approaches, FIG 5­9­8

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b. Independent approaches may be conducted when:

a. Independent approaches may be conducted when:

1. A minimum distance of 4,300 feet between centerlines is required when dual simultaneous approaches are used.

1. Dual parallel runway centerlines are at least 4,300 feet apart.

2. A minimum distance of 5,000 feet between centerlines is required for triple simultaneous approaches at airports with field elevation less than 1,000 feet MSL.

2. Triple parallel centerlines are at least 5,000 feet apart and the airport field elevation is less than 1,000 feet MSL.

c. Specially-designed instrument approach procedures annotated with “simultaneous approaches authorized with Rwy XX" are authorized for simultaneous dependent and independent approaches.

b. Specially-designed instrument approach procedures annotated with “simultaneous approaches authorized with Rwy XX" are authorized for simultaneous independent approaches.

d. Equipment required to maintain communication, navigation, and surveillance systems is operational with the glide slope exception as noted below.

c. Equipment required to maintain communication, navigation, and surveillance systems is operational with the glide slope exception as noted below.

e. Operations without vertical guidance may be continued for up to 29 days provided the following conditions are met:

d. During glide slope outages, facilities may continue to conduct simultaneous independent approaches without vertical guidance for a period of no more than 29 days, provided the following requirements are identified in an Air Traffic Safety Oversight Service (AOV) approved contingency plan. At a minimum, the following special provisions, conditions, and limitations must be identified in the plan, if applicable, along with any other facility-specific requirements:

1. Each facility must have a contingency plan for unplanned glide slope out procedures approved by the Air Traffic Safety Oversight Service (AOV).

1. An LOA with the ATCT (or facility directive for a combined facility) must contain a description of the procedures, requirements, and any limitations as specified in the facility contingency plan for glide slope out of service procedures.

2. At a minimum, the following special provisions and conditions must be identified in the plan, if applicable, along with any other facility-specific requirements:

2. The ATC facility must notify Technical Operations personnel of the glide slope outage.

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REFERENCE-
FAAO JO 7210.3, Para 3-5-2, System Component Malfunctions

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3. The ATC facility must notify arriving pilots that the glide slope is out of service. This can be accomplished via the ATIS broadcast.

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4. Any other requirements specified in the local facility contingency plan for glide slope out procedures must be complied with before conducting simultaneous independent approach procedures.

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5. Controllers must be trained and provided annual refresher training concerning the application of these procedures.

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6. The ATC facility must record when the glide slope outage occurs and any adverse impact on the operation on FAA Form 7230-4, Daily Record of Facility Operation.

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7. Any loss of separation or break out associated with operations under a contingency plan for glide slope out must be reported to the Director, Terminal Operations, Headquarters.

(a) The facility must have final monitor controllers with override capability.

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(b) The facility must have radar coverage down to the decision altitude or minimum descent altitude, as applicable.

8. The facility must have radar coverage down to the decision altitude or minimum descent altitude, as applicable.

(c) A “No Transgression Zone" (NTZ) must be established and used.

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(d) Approaches must be terminated to the runway without a glide slope whenever the reported visibility is below the S-LOC minimum for that runway.

9. Approaches must be terminated to the runway without a glide slope whenever the reported visibility is below the straight-in localizer minimum for that runway.

(e) Any required equipment for the approach with the glide slope out of service must be operational, such as DME or VORTAC. This equipment must be identified in the facility contingency plan for glide slope out procedures.

10. Any required equipment for the approach with the glide slope out of service must be operational, such as DME or VORTAC.

(f) Mode C requirements must not be waived for any aircraft conducting an ILS approach with the glide slope out of service.

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(g) An LOA with the ATCT (or facility directive for a combined facility) must contain a description of the procedures, requirements, and any limitations as specified in the facility contingency plan for glide slope out of service procedures.

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(h) The ATC facility must notify Technical Operations personnel of the glide slope outage.

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REFERENCE-
FAAO JO 7210.3, Paragraph 3-5-2, System Component Malfunctions

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(i) The ATC facility must notify arriving pilots that the glide slope is out of service. This can be accomplished via the ATIS broadcast.

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(j) Any other requirements specified in the local facility contingency plan for glide slope out procedures must be complied with before conducting simultaneous approach procedures.

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(k) Controllers must be trained and provided annual refresher training concerning the application of these procedures.

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(l) The ATC facility must record when the glide slope outage occurs and any adverse impact on the operation in FAA Form 7230-4, Daily Record of Facility Operation.

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(m) Any loss of separation or break out associated with operations under a contingency plan for glide slope out must be reported to the Terminal Procedures Group Manager at FAA Headquarters (HQ).

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f. Simultaneous approaches with the glide slope unusable must be discontinued after 29 days unless a waiver has been submitted to and approved by FAA HQ. (See Appendix 4.)

e. Simultaneous approaches with the glide slope unusable must be discontinued after 29 days unless a waiver has been submitted to and approved by FAA HQ. (See Appendix 4.)

g. When simultaneous approaches are being conducted, the pilot is expected to inform approach control, prior to departing an outer fix, if the aircraft does not have the appropriate airborne equipment or they do not choose to conduct a simultaneous approach. Provide individual handling to such aircraft.

f. When simultaneous approaches are being conducted, the pilot is expected to inform approach control, prior to departing an outer fix, if the aircraft does not have the appropriate airborne equipment or they do not choose to conduct a simultaneous approach. Provide individual handling to such aircraft.

h. Closely monitor weather activity that could impact the final approach course. Weather conditions in the vicinity of either final approach course may dictate a change of the approach in use. (See subpara 10-1-6b Note, Selecting Active Runways.)

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i. All turn-ons and final approaches are monitored by radar. Since the primary responsibility for navigation rests with the pilot, instructions from the controller are limited to those necessary to ensure separation between aircraft. Information and instructions are issued, as necessary, to contain the aircraft's flight path within the “Normal Operating Zone" (NOZ). Aircraft which are observed to enter the NTZ are instructed to alter course left or right, as appropriate, to return to the desired course. Unless altitude separation is assured between aircraft, immediate action must be taken by the controller monitoring the adjacent parallel approach course to require the aircraft in potential conflict to alter its flight path to avoid the deviating aircraft.

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j. Missed approach procedures are established with climbs on diverging courses. To reduce the possibility of error, the missed approach procedure for a single runway operation should be revised, as necessary, to be compatible with that of a simultaneous approach operation.

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k. The following minimum radar and communications equipment must be provided for monitoring simultaneous approaches:

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1. One separate airport surveillance radar display of a model currently certified for ATC functions. A high-resolution color monitor with alert algorithms, such as the Final Monitor Aid or that required in the Precision Runway Monitor program, must be required as follows:

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(a) At locations where triple simultaneous approaches are conducted to parallel runways with centerlines separated by at least 4,300 feet, but less than 5,000 feet, and the airport field elevation is less than 1,000 feet MSL.

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(b) At locations where triple simultaneous approaches are conducted to parallel runways with field elevation 1,000 feet MSL or greater require an approved FAA aeronautical study.

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2. Authorize simultaneous close parallel approaches to dual runways with centerlines separated by 3,000 feet with one final approach course offset by 2.5 degrees using a precision runway monitor system with a 1.0 second radar update system, and when centerlines are separated by 3,400 feet when precision runway monitors are utilized with a radar update rate of 2.4 seconds or less.

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3. The common NOZ and NTZ lines between the final approach course centerlines must be depicted on the radar video map. The NTZ must be 2,000 feet wide and centered an equal distance from the final approach centerlines. The remaining spaces between the final approach courses are the NOZs associated with each course.

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4. Establish monitor positions for each final approach course which have override transmit and receive capability on the appropriate control tower frequencies. A check of the override capability at each monitor position must be completed before monitoring begins. Monitor displays must be located in such proximity to permit direct verbal coordination between monitor controllers. A single display may be used for two monitor positions.

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5. Facility directives must define the position responsible for providing the minimum applicable longitudinal separation between aircraft on the same final approach course.

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l. Dual local control positions, while not mandatory, are desirable.

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m. Where possible, establish standard breakout procedures for each simultaneous operation. If traffic patterns and airspace permit, the standard breakout altitude should be the same as the missed approach altitude.

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10-6-4. APPROACH LIGHT SYSTEMS

10-6-4. APPROACH LIGHT SYSTEMS

title through b4

No Change

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c. At airports with air traffic control towers equipped with airport lighting control panels that do not provide direct indication of airport lighting intensities, the ATM, with the airport operator, must annually review and compare the preset selection settings configured in the tower lighting control system to verify that they comply with FAA requirements.

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17-6-14. TMIs OF 25 MIT OR GREATER

17-6-14. TMIs OF 25 MIT OR GREATER

title through a1(b)

No Change

2. Share the FEA with the ATCSCC and coordinate justification for the restriction.

2. Share the FEA with the ATCSCC.

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3. Enter the name of the FEA in the remarks section of the NTML Restrictions tab and coordinate justification for the restriction.

NOTEs

No Change

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19-1-2. AUTHORITY

19-1-2. AUTHORITY

title through a

No Change

b. Title 14 of the Code of Federal Regulations (14 CFR) parts 91 and 99 contain regulations addressing temporary flight restrictions.

b. Title 14 of the Code of Federal Regulations (14 CFR) parts 91 and 99 contain regulations addressing temporary flight restrictions and Special Security Instructions.

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19-1-3. REASONS FOR ISSUING A TFR

19-1-3. REASONS FOR ISSUING A TFR

While not all inclusive, a TFR may be issued for the following reasons: toxic gas leaks or spills; fumes from flammable agents which, if fanned by rotor or propeller wash, could endanger persons or property on the surface or in other aircraft; volcanic eruptions that could endanger airborne aircraft and occupants; hijacking incidents that may endanger persons or property on the surface, or airborne aircraft and occupants; aircraft accident/incident sites; aviation or ground resources engaged in wildfire suppression; aircraft relief activities following a disaster; aerial demonstrations or major sporting events; or reasons of national security.

While not all inclusive, a TFR may be issued for the following reasons: toxic gas leaks or spills; fumes from flammable agents which, if fanned by rotor or propeller wash, could endanger persons or property on the surface or in other aircraft; volcanic eruptions that could endanger airborne aircraft and occupants; hijacking incidents that may endanger persons or property on the surface, or airborne aircraft and occupants; aircraft accident/incident sites; aviation or ground resources engaged in wildfire suppression; aircraft relief activities following a disaster; aerial demonstrations or major sporting events. A Special Security Instruction may be issued for reasons of national security.

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19-1-4. TYPES OF TFRs

19-1-4. TYPES OF TFRs

TFRs are issued under the following regulations:

TFRs may be issued under the following regulations:

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19-1-5. TFR INFORMATION

19-1-6. TFR INFORMATION

a. Educational information regarding TFRs can be found in 14 CFR parts 91 and 99; Advisory Circular 91−63C, Temporary Flight Restrictions; and the Aeronautical Information Manual.

a. Educational information regarding TFRs can be found in 14 CFR parts 91 and 99, and the Aeronautical Information Manual.

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19-1-6. ENTITIES REQUESTING TFRs

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A TFR may be requested by various entities, including: military commands; federal security/intelligence agencies; regional directors of the Office of Emergency Planning, Civil Defense State Directors; civil authorities directing or coordinating organized relief air operations (e.g., Office of Emergency Planning; law enforcement agencies; U.S. Forest Service; state aeronautical agencies); State Governors; FAA Flight Standards District Office, aviation event organizers or sporting event officials.

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19-1-7. ISSUING TFRs

19-2-5. ISSUING TFRs

FAA Headquarters or the ATO Service Area Managers (or designee) having jurisdiction over the area concerned may issue a TFR.

a. FAA Headquarters or the ATO service area managers (or their designee) having jurisdiction over the area concerned may issue a TFR.

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b. TFRs issued for hijacking events may be issued by FAA Headquarters or the ATO service area managers (or designee) in consultation with Transportation Security Administration (TSA).

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c. ARTCC managers (or designee) may issue TFRs in accordance with 14 CFR Sections 91.137(a)(1) and (a)(2).

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d. TFRs issued in accordance with 14 CFR Section 91.137(a)(3) require FAA Headquarters approval.

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e. TFRs issued for law enforcement activities require approval from the ATO Director of System Operations Security (or designee).

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NOTE-
Law enforcement activities that may warrant TFRs include, but are not limited to, situations where there is a direct hazard to aircraft (for example, shots fired at aircraft) or where the presence of aircraft could exacerbate the danger to personnel on the ground (for example, SWAT or other personnel moving into position, etc.).

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19-1-8. TFRs OUTSIDE OF THE UNITED STATES AND ITS TERRITORIES

19-1-7. TFRs OUTSIDE OF THE UNITED STATES AND ITS TERRITORIES

TFRs are only implemented for sovereign U.S. airspace and its territories. If restrictions are located in an area that extends beyond the 12-mile coastal limit or a U.S border, the NOTAM will contain language limiting the restriction to the airspace of the U.S., and its territories and possessions. However, the FAA may issue an advisory of any hazard or dangerous information outside of the sovereign U.S. airspace and its territories via the NOTAM System to inform affected users.

TFRs are only implemented for sovereign U.S. airspace and its territories. If restrictions are located in an area that extends beyond the 12-mile coastal limit or a U.S border, the NOTAM will contain language limiting the restriction to the airspace of the U.S., and its territories and possessions. The FAA may issue an advisory via the NOTAM System to inform affected users of any hazard or dangerous information outside of the sovereign U.S. airspace and its territories.

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19-1-9. FACTORS FOR CONSIDERING TFR RESTRICTIONS

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Direct any questions or concerns regarding TFRs to the ATO Service Area Managers having management jurisdiction over the TFR area. You may also contact System Operations Airspace and Aeronautical Information Management, FAA Headquarters, Washington, D.C., at (202) 267-8783.

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19-1-10. TFR QUESTIONS

19-1-8. TFR QUESTIONS

Direct any questions or concerns regarding TFRs to the ATO Service Area Managers having management jurisdiction over the TFR area. You may also contact System Operations Airspace and Aeronautical Information Management, FAA Headquarters, Washington, D.C., at (202) 267-8783.

Direct any questions or concerns regarding TFRs to the ATO service area manager having jurisdiction over the TFR area. You may also contact Mission Support, Airspace, Regulations, and ATC Procedures Group, FAA Headquarters, Washington, D.C., at (202) 267-8783.

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19-2-2. RATIONALE

19-2-2. RATIONALE

The rationale for designating a TFR in accordance with 14 CFR Section 91.137 is to:

TFRs in accordance with 14 CFR Section 91.137 are issued when necessary to:

a. Protect persons and property on the surface or in the air from an existing or imminent hazard associated with an incident on the surface when the presence of low flying aircraft would magnify, alter, spread, or compound that hazard.

a. 14 CFR 91.137(a)(1) - Protect persons and property on the surface or in the air from an existing or imminent hazard associated with an incident on the surface when the presence of low flying aircraft would magnify, alter, spread, or compound that hazard.

b. Provide a safe environment for the operation of disaster relief aircraft.

b. 14 CFR 91.137(a)(2) - Provide a safe environment for the operation of disaster relief aircraft.

c. Prevent an unsafe congestion of sightseeing and other aircraft above an incident or event that may generate a high degree of public interest.

c. 14 CFR 91.137(a)(3) - Prevent an unsafe congestion of sightseeing and other aircraft above an incident or event that may generate a high degree of public interest.

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19-2-3. exceptions

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The exceptions for designating a TFR in accordance with 14 CFR Section 91.137 are:

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a. Except for hijacking situations, a TFR of this type may be issued by FAA Headquarters; the ATO Service Area Managers (or their designee) having jurisdiction over the area concerned.

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b. The respective Manager of Terminal or En Route and Oceanic Service Area Operations (or their designee) having jurisdiction over the area of concern, in consultation with the Transportation Security Administration, will establish a TFR to address hijacking situations.

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c. TFR areas are only implemented for sovereign U.S. airspace and its territories. If restrictions are located in an area that extends beyond the 12-mile coastal limit or a U.S. border, the NOTAM will contain language limiting the restriction to the airspace of the U.S., and its territories and possessions. However, an advisory of any hazard or dangerous information outside of the sovereign U.S. airspace and its territories would be issued via the NOTAM System to inform affected users.

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d. Flight restrictions in the proximity of the President, Vice President and other parties must be in accordance with FAAO JO 7610.4, Special Operations and Chapter 6 of this order.

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19-2-5. SITUATIONS FOR RESTRICTIONS

19-2-3. SITUATIONS FOR RESTRICTIONS

Situations that may warrant a TFR in accordance with 14 CFR Section 91.137 include, but are not limited to the following:

TFRs in accordance with 14 CFR Section 91.137 may be issued for, but are not limited to, the following situations:

a. 14 CFR Section 91.137(a)(1): toxic gas leaks or spills; flammable agents, or fumes which if fanned by rotor or propeller wash, could endanger persons or property on the surface, or if entered by an aircraft could endanger persons or property in the air; volcanic eruptions that could endanger airborne aircraft and occupants; nuclear accident or incident; and hijackings.

a. 14 CFR 91.137(a)(1): toxic gas leaks or spills; flammable agents or fumes that, if fanned by rotor or propeller wash, could endanger persons or property on the surface or, if entered by an aircraft, could endanger persons or property in the air; volcanic eruptions that could endanger airborne aircraft and occupants; nuclear accident or incident; and hijackings.

b. 14 CFR Section 91.137(a)(2): aviation or ground resources engaged in wildfire suppression; and aircraft relief activities following a disaster (e.g., earthquake, tidal wave, flood, etc.).

b. 14 CFR 91.137(a)(2): aviation or ground resources engaged in wildfire suppression; and aircraft relief activities following a disaster (for example, earthquake, tidal wave, flood, etc.).

c. 14 CFR Section 91.137(a)(3): disaster/hazard incidents of limited duration that would attract an unsafe congestion of sightseeing aircraft, such as aircraft accident sites.

c. 14 CFR 91.137(a)(3): disaster/hazard incidents of limited duration that would attract an unsafe congestion of sightseeing aircraft, such as aircraft accident sites.

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19-2-6. CAVEATS TO RESTRICTIONS

19-2-6. DEGREE OF RESTRICTIONS

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a. Section 91.137(a)(1). Restrictions issued in accordance with this Section prohibit all aircraft from operating in the designated area unless that aircraft is participating in the disaster/hazard relief activities and is being operated under the direction of the official in charge of on-scene emergency response activities.

a. Section 91.137(a)(1). Restrictions issued in accordance with this section prohibit all aircraft from operating in the designated area unless that aircraft is participating in the disaster/hazard relief activities and is being operated under the direction of the official in charge of on-scene emergency response activities.

b. Section 91.137(a)(2). Restrictions issued in accordance with this Section prohibit all aircraft from operating in the designated area unless at least one of the following conditions are met:

b. Section 91.137(a)(2). Restrictions issued in accordance with this section prohibit all aircraft from operating in the designated area unless at least one of the following conditions is met:

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3. The aircraft is operating under an ATC approved IFR flight plan.

3. The aircraft is operating under an ATC approved IFR flight plan.

NOTE-
Coordination with the official in charge of on-scene emergency response activities is required prior to ATC allowing any IFR or VFR aircraft to enter into the TFR area.

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b4

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5. The aircraft is carrying properly accredited news representatives, and prior to entering the area, a flight plan is filed.

5. The aircraft is carrying properly accredited news representatives, and prior to entering the area, a flight plan is filed.

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NOTE-
Coordination with the official in charge of on-scene emergency response activities is required prior to ATC allowing any IFR or VFR aircraft to enter into the TFR area.

c. Section 91.137(a)(3). Restrictions issued in accordance with this Section prohibit all aircraft from operating in the designated area unless at least one of the following conditions are met:

c. Section 91.137(a)(2). Restrictions issued in accordance with this section prohibit all aircraft from operating in the designated area unless at least one of the following conditions is met:

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4. The aircraft is carrying properly accredited news representatives and, prior to entering that area, a flight plan is filed.

4. The aircraft is carrying properly accredited news representatives and, prior to entering that area, a flight plan is filed with FSS or the ATC facility specified in the NOTAM. Flight plans must include aircraft identification, type, and color; radio frequencies to be used; proposed times of entry to and exit from the TFR area; the name of news media or organization and purpose of flight.

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19-2-7. RESPONSIBILITIES

19-2-7. RESPONSIBILITIES

Air traffic facilities must coordinate their efforts to the maximum extent possible in rendering assistance to the agency conducting the relief activity, the pilots engaged in airborne relief operations, and the official-in-charge of on scene emergency response activities in accordance the following:

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a. All FAA personnel approving or issuing TFRs must ensure that restrictions meet regulatory criteria and are issued in accordance with FAA directives.

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b. The ATO Director of System Operations Security (or designee) must:

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1. Review and, if warranted, approve TFRs issued for law enforcement activities in accordance with the provisions of 14 CFR Section 91.137.

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2. Act as the operational representative for media concerns regarding active 14 CFR 91.137 TFRs.

a. ATO Service Area Manager personnel must:

c. ATO service area managers (or designee) must:

1. The regional ATO Service Area Managers (or their designee) is responsible for reviewing all flight restrictions in their jurisdiction issued in accordance with 14 CFR 91.137 at least every 30 days.

1. Review all flight restrictions in their jurisdiction issued in accordance with 14 CFR 91.137 at least every 30 days.

2. Coordinate with affected air traffic facilities, event personnel, and local authorities when applicable.

2. Coordinate with affected air traffic facilities, event personnel, and local authorities when applicable.

3. Coordinate with the Transportation Security Administration when hijacking situations are involved.

3. Coordinate with TSA when hijacking situations are involved.

b. The facility air traffic manager, or their designee, having jurisdiction over the area concerned must:

d. ARTCC air traffic managers (or designee) having jurisdiction over the area concerned must:

1. Accept requests for and if warranted, establish TFRs in accordance with the provisions of 14 CFR Sections 91.137(a)(1) and 91.137(a)(2).

1. Accept requests for and, if warranted, establish TFRs in accordance with the provisions of 14 CFR Sections 91.137(a)(1) and 91.137(a)(2).

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2. Contact the System Operations Support Center (SOSC) at (202) 267-8276 to obtain approval for TFRs requested for law enforcement activities.

2. Inform all affected facilities of the TFR; including location, altitude and effective times.

3. Inform all affected facilities of the TFR; including location, altitude, and effective times.

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4. Coordinate with SUA using agencies when a TFR may impact SUA activities.

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5. Notify the Regional Operations Center when a 91.137(a)(1) TFR has been issued. Ensure information is passed to Service Center Operations Support Group (OSG) and SOSC personnel.

3. When possible, reroute IFR traffic around the TFR, unless prior approval is obtained from the on-scene coordinator.

6. Reroute IFR traffic around the TFR, unless prior approval is obtained from the on-scene coordinator.

4. Maintain a chronological log of all TFR related actions on FAA Form 7230-4, Daily Record of Facility Operation Log, to include:

7. Maintain a chronological log of all TFR related actions on FAA Form 7230-4, Daily Record of Facility Operation Log, to include:

(a) The name and the organization of the person requesting the TFR.

(a) The name and the organization of the person requesting the TFR.

(b) A brief description of the situation.

(b) A brief description of the situation.

(c) The estimated duration of the restrictions.

(c) The estimated duration of the restrictions.

(d) The name of the agency responsible for on-scene emergency activities and the telephone or other communications contact.

(d) The name of the agency responsible for on-scene emergency activities and the telephone or other communications contact.

(e) A description of the location of the affected area.

(e) A description of the location of the affected area.

(f) Obtain a signed, written request from the individual requesting the TFR, which states the reason for the restriction.

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5. Designate the Air Traffic Organization (ATO) Security Coordinator 202-267-3333, as the “coordination facility, or a designated ATC facility."

8. Act as, or designate, an ATC coordination facility. The coordination facility must serve, if assistance is required, as a primary “communication facility" for communications between the emergency control authorities and affected aircraft.

6. Act as liaison between the emergency control authorities and the ATO Security Coordinator, 202-267-3333 if adequate communications cannot be established between them.

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7. Issue flight restrictions, NOTAM and appropriate cancellation in a timely manner.

9. Issue flight restrictions, NOTAM and appropriate cancellation in a timely manner.

c. The coordination facility must serve, if assistance is required, as a primary “communication facility," for communications between the emergency control authorities and the affected aircraft.

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d. All air traffic facilities must:

e. All air traffic facilities must:

1. To the maximum extent possible, render assistance to the agency requesting the TFR.

1. To the maximum extent possible, render assistance to the agency requesting the TFR.

2. Disseminate TFR information to all affected pilots in the area by all possible means (i.e., NOTAM, AOPA website, etc.).

2. Disseminate TFR information to all affected pilots in the area by all possible means.

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3. Refer all media requests for information concerning TFRs to the SOSC at (202) 267-8276.

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19-2-8. MESSAGE CONTENT

19-1-5. TFR NOTAM CONTENT

TFR NOTAMs must comply with procedures detailed in FAAO 7930.2, Notices to Airmen (NOTAMS).

TFR NOTAMs must comply with procedures detailed in FAA Order JO 7930.2, Notices to Airmen (NOTAM).

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19-2-9. REVISIONS AND CANCELLATIONS

19-2-8. REVISIONS AND CANCELLATIONS

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b. When the ARTCC within whose area the restrictions are established receives information from the ATO Service Area Managers or the agency that requested the restrictions that the restrictions are no longer required, the ARTCC must take action to cancel them. If the information is received by another facility, that facility must notify the ARTCC, which will take appropriate action.

b. When the ARTCC within whose area the restrictions are established receives information from the ATO service area or the agency that requested the restrictions that the restrictions are no longer required, the ARTCC must take action to cancel them. If the information is received by another facility, that facility must notify the ARTCC, which will take appropriate action.

c. When the ARTCC within whose area the restrictions are established receives information from the ATO Service Area Managers (or requesting agency) that the restrictions are no longer required, the ARTCC must take action to cancel them. If the information is received by another facility, that facility must notify the ARTCC.

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d. When it is obvious that the restrictions are no longer required but no information to that effect has been received, the ARTCC must take action to ascertain the status of the restrictions from the ATO Service Area Managers or the agency that requested the restrictions, and if appropriate, cancel them.

c. When it is obvious that the restrictions are no longer required but a cancellation request has not been received, the ARTCC must take action to ascertain the status of the restrictions from the ATO service area or the agency that requested the restrictions, and if appropriate, cancel them.

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19-4-2. REQUESTING AUTHORITIES

19-4-2. REQUESTING AUTHORITIES

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b. The Administrator or the Associate Administrator for Air Traffic may utilize the NOTAM system to provide notification of the issuance of the rule or regulation.

b. The Administrator (or designee) may utilize the NOTAM system to provide notification of the issuance of the rule or regulation.

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19-4-3. ISSUING TFRS

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TFRs issued in accordance with 14 CFR Section 91.139 may be issued by the FAA Administrator (or designee), the Chief Operating Officer of the ATO, FAA ATO Headquarters, or the ATO Director of System Operations Security.

Paragraph 19-4-3

Renumber to 19-4-4.

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19-5-2. Requesting authorities

19-5-2. Requesting authorities

a. A TFR under 14 CFR Section 91.141 may be requested by the Washington headquarters office of the U.S. Government agency responsible for the protection of the person concerned. This agency will contact FAA Headquarters in accordance with established procedures and request the necessary regulatory action.

A TFR under 14 CFR Section 91.141 may be requested by the Washington headquarters office of the U.S. Government agency responsible for the protection of the person concerned. This agency will contact FAA Headquarters in accordance with established procedures and request the necessary regulatory action.

b. The ATO Director of System Operations Security (or their designee) can issue a TFR under this section.

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19-5-3. ISSUING TFRs

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TFRs issued in accordance with 14 CFR Section 91.141 may be issued by the ATO Director of System Operations Security (or designee).

Paragraph 19-5-3

Renumber to 19-5-4.

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19-5-5. procedures

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Flight restrictions in the proximity of the President, Vice President, and other parties must be in accordance with FAA Order JO 7610.4, Special Operations.